Question Answer
Which of the following has the most potential for nephrotoxic of your ototoxicity cefepime meropenem Gentamicin cefazolin Gentamicin
which of the following is recommended for use in an adult severe sepsis piperacillin aminoglycoside carbapenem Vancomycin Aminoglycoside
Which of the following antimicrobial classes work by inhibiting DNA synthesis fluoroquinolones tetracyclines glycopeptide carbapenems fluoroquinolones
which of the following is likely the worst choice for a patient suspected of suffering from an MRSA skin infection cefazolin doxycycline clinda myosin sulfamethoxazole cefazolin
all of the following are acceptable empiric therapy combinations except Ceftriaxone and azithromycin azithromycin levofloxacin azithromycin and levofloxacin azithromycin and levofloxacin
which of the following antibiotics is unsafe for use in pregnancy penicillin azithromycin levofloxacin or clindamycin levofloxacin
all of the following provide GraM positive coverage except Metronidazole, vancomycin, clindamyvin aztreonam Aztreonam
Which of the following is the best antibiotic choice for treatment of gonorrhea cefazolin Ceftriaxone Cefmetazole azithromycin CeftriaXone
Which of the following would not be considered a used for Ceftriaxone pediatric sepsis greater than 1 month old sepsis with abdominal etiology pregnancy before the third trimester meningitis pregnancy before the third trimester
which of the following is not an effect of hypothermia on trauma patients blunted response to catecholamines impaired cellular immune response and increasing platelet function peripheral vasoconstriction and increasing platelet function
which of the following would not be considered as a differential diagnosis for respiratory distress and chest trauma patients flail chest hemithorax tension pneumothorax cardiac tamponade cardiac tamponade
The ________ value level does not correlate between ABG and vbg findings hco3 pco2 Po2 pH Po2
The normal range for a vvg VO2 is 60-70 80 – 100 40 50-60 40
Given the following laboratory values indicate which pathologic condition the patient is experiencing pH 7.68 pco2 22 po 291 hco3 34 respiratory alkalosis metabolic acidosis metabolic alkalosis respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis
match each blood type with its corresponding antibody or antibOdies A, B, AB, O A-anti b
B anti A
Ab none
O- none
A patient is showing to have anti-b antibodies and no D antigen what blood type is this patient AB negative O positive be positive o-, A- A-
Renal dysfunction that results from the mobilization of muscle proteins that impair filtration is a condition known as myoglobinuria rhabdoMyoglobin methylglobinuria rhabdomyolysis Rhabdomyolysis
all of the following are increased in obstructive shock except PVR contractility afterload free load contractility
which of the following will cause the oxyhemoglobin curve to shift up anemia decreased temperature increased 2-3 DPG polycythemia polycythemia
the Henderson hasselbalch equation is used to calculate what value pH pco2 pao2 hco3 pH
which of the following is not a sympathetic response glycogen conversion increased chronotropic constricted pupils bronchodilation constricted pupils
which of the following will give a VQ of 0 bypass pulmonary embolism a shunt or High peep Shunt
What is an early sign of shock in pediatric patients hypotension tachycardia decreased Loc delayed capillary refill time delayed capillary refill time
the low po2 in the affected lung patient suffering from haPe will cause blood vessels to constrict in order to divert blood to the good life this is a contemporary mechanism called hypoxic vasoconstriction
Which of the following values would meet the profusion goals in a septic patient urine output of .25 milliliters per kilogram per hour and the svo2 of 60 CI 2.5, map 55 CI 2.5
You were taught the 60 90 Rule and class what do those values represent Sao2/p02, po2/etco2, p02/sao2, sao2/etco2 Po2/sao2
The key difference between left and right sided heart failure is it right sided heart failure will have a increased CVP decreased pcwp decreased CI increased Decreased pcwp
what enzyme is responsible for converting H2O and CO2 to H2co3 carbonic acid Carbonic anhydrase DNA helicase atpaste Carbonic anhydrase
which of the following would be lowered in cardiogenic shock PVR heart rate stroke volume preload stroke volume
polydipsia in dka is caused by: the body's inefficient use of nutrients dehydration deep rapid respirations diuresis dehydration
what are the main hormones secreted by the pancreas that are responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels: glucose and insulin glucagon and glycogen insulin and glycogen glucagon and insulin glucagon and insulin
which of the following hormone classes is hydrophobic: peptide amino acid derivatives steroid all of these are correct steroid
which of the following posterior pituitary hormones plays a large role in H2O balance oxytocin adrenocorticotropic hormone Arginine vasopressin thyroid stimulating hormone Arginine vasopressin
Of the main differences between the anterior and the posterior pituitary lobes is that posterior low produces hormones but does not secrete them the posterior lobe secretes hormones that does not produce them the anterior lobe only produces two hormones the posterior lobe secretes hormones but does not produce them
what is the cause of insulin resistance: not enough insulin is produced by the alpha cells target cells do not react to the arrival of insulin not enough insulin is produced by the beta cells not enough insulin is present systematically Target sales did not react to the arrival of insulin
what two parts of the adrenal gland produces hormones: cortex and thyroid anterior and posterior medulla and pancreas cortex and medulla cortex and medulla
a regular smokers night vision is typically ______ of less than a non smokers: 25% 20% 30% 10% 20%
most humans can survive forces up to blank G and blank G 9 + 3
core body temperature the Exceed _______ result in decreased short-term memory the graded motor skills and general decreased and performance 102.5 101 104 100 100
at 15000 feet a healthy person's pao2 will decreased to approximately: 44 88 66 22 44
stagnant hypoxia results from colon a lack of available hemoglobin molecules the cells Inability to utilize oxygen, a failure to transport oxygenated blood a lack of adequate ventilation failure to transport oxygenated blood
silent carbon dioxide diffuses more readily than option into the bloodstream is an example of_____ law in action Gray Lussacs, universal, Henry's, gramHams Grahams
French chemist Joseph Louis gay-lussac found that there is a correlation between – and – When volume is constant: temperature& mass, temperature and volume volume and solubility pressure and temperature pressure temperature
Exposure to high levels of noise causes colon increase myocardial oxygen demand bradypnea decreased Cerebral oxygen demand or vasodilation Increased myocardial oxygen demand
during transport the patients distal pulses below an iabp insertion site should be assessed every – minutes 60,15, 5,30 15
virtually all coronary blood flow occurs during: systole diastole aortic valve opening left atrial contraction diastole
an increase in heart rate will: decreased coronary perfusion time increase coronary perfusion time increased coronary perfusion pressure is decreased myocardial oxygen consumption decreased coronary perfusion time
the volume in blood in the ventricles just prior to the valves closing is known as: ventricular filling cardiac output afterload preload Preload
Inflation of the counter pulsation Blaine before the closure of the aortic valve would indicate late deflation early inflation late inflation decreased afterload Earley inflation
All of the following are contraindications to Iabp therapy except: severe aortic valvular insufficiency abdominal aortic aneurysm refractory ventricular failure iliac arterial disease
refractory ventricular failure
the rapid deflation of the counter pulsation balloon causes an increase in_____ aLlows a decrease in______ Co stroke volume, heart rate stroke volume stroke volume heart rate mean arterial pressure stroke volume stroke volume heart rate
correct ibp timing inflates the blue Nguyen the coronary arteries are feeling the ventricles are Contracting systole is occurring the aortic valve is open the coronary arteries are feeling
which of the following is not an advantage of the iabp decreased afterload increases afterload decreases myocardial O2 demand increases coronary artery perfusion increases afterLoad
Which inflation of the counter pulsation balloon daring______ the mean arterial pressure will________: systole increase systole decrease diastole decrease diastole increase diastole increase
the counter pulsation balloon deflates at the end of blank just prior to blank diastole and atrial relaxation diastole ventricular ejection systole ventricular contraction systole ventricular relaxation diastole ventricular ejection
the blank valve lies between the Atria and the ventricles mitral and tricuspid atrial and pulmonic mitral and atrial tricuspid employment mitral and tricuspid
insertion of an ivp catheter into a cardiogenic shock patient can improve urinary output by increasing the patient's cerebral perfusion increase in cardiac output improving oxygenation the increase in fluid administration increase in cardiac output
which of the following represents the beginning of diastole in the ICP waveform P2 P3 unknown or P1 P3
You are transporting a patient with an EVd you are unable to Accurate align and level the device which of the following is the best option align the device a little higher
the diachronic notch in the ICP waveform is between which two components P4 P1 P3 P2 P3 P2
The formula for blood pressure is cardiac output and divide the mean arterial pressure cardiac output X svr 2 x diastolic blood pressure plus systolic blood pressure / 3 heart rate times stroke volume Cardiac output X svr
on an aortic pressure waveform the uppermost point of the waveform indicates the________Pressure svr diastolic pulse systolic systolic
pulmonary vascular resistance is measured in L/min,ml/beat, dyne-min/cm5,dyne-sec/cm5 dyne-sec/ccm5
End diastolic pressure is synonymous with: cardiac index pulmonary vascular resistance preload afterload free load
what is the formula for correcting measured pcwp in a mechanically ventilated patient with peEp levels above 10 centimeters H2O susubtract1.5 mmhg friendly measured pcwp reading for every 5cm h2o of peep
On an aortic pressure waveform the dicrotic notch represents the start of systole closure of the aortic valve closure of the pulmonic valve end of diastolic closure of the aortic valve
if the transducer is moved above the Phlebostatic axis the pressure readings willFluctuate not change decrease increase decrease
the normal range for a pcwp measurement is 2-6,2.5-4.2,4-12,6-18 4-12
Invasive hemodynamic monitoring attempts to assess the physiologic condition of which three principal components of the cardiovascular system rate Rhythm and quality heart lungs and perfusion heart vascular Network Fluid volumey ,stroke volume heart rate Heart vascular Network in flUid volume
Cardiac stroke volume is measured in: ml/min, l/min, dynes,ml/beat/m2 Ml/bbeat
Which of the following lab values most closely reflects a patient with TPA at risk of bleeding a Prothrombin time of 28 seconds
the physiologic measurement of osmotic pressure in humans is called diffusion osmolality osmolarity concentration osmolality
when reviewing your patients lab values part of transfer you note the hEmatocritz is 48% based on your knowledge of the hematocrit test you know that it has a High sensitivity and specificity
which of the following is the major intracellular cation glucose potassium calcium sodium potassium
Crush injury patient you say that is cerium creatinine level is 2.3 which of the following statements best accounts for this lab value the byproducts of muscle tissue damage are affecting rental functioning
liver failure bilirubin 2.2 you would anticipate which of the following findings a body why petechial rash pulmonary edema hypotension anemia anemia
diabetic ketoacidosis patient on event receiving potassium drip what value most frequently reassess there in the care and transport of the Patient lactate potassium calcium glucose Glucose
Which of the following statements best describes an enzyme It's A protein that catalyzes biochemical reactions
blank is the proportion of people without the target disorder who have a negative test result sensitivity accuracy specificity reliability specificity
Cerium potassium reported to be 7.7 you know the underlying condition is cause the test to be inaccurate what's your first action in this case assess cardiovascular status
inhalation smoke injury intubated respiratory compromise end-tidal CO2 is increasing the 60 which of the following statements is true sixties qualitative 60 specific measurement 60 is a quantitative measurement sixties a sensitive measurement sixties a quantitative measurement
it is the act of putting someone in reasonable apprehension of an imminent harmful or offensive Act assault battery negligence none of the above assault
Hippo records are maintained for how many years six six months 20 years 10 years 6 years
which of the following is false in regards to bacterial exotoxins they are lipid usually excreted by gram-positive bacteria highly specific and action produced inside the Cells They are lipids
blank is the most common pathogen for all the age groups of patients with community-acquired pneumonia staphylococcus pneumoniae Haemophilius influenzae, staph aureus mycobacterium Staphylococcus pneumoniae
the picture with all the little worm looking things is gram positive bacteria eukaryotes gram-negative bacteria they have a Staph morphology Gram positive bacteria
The picture with the little round cluster balls is staphylococcus diplococcus streptococcus gram-negative rods staphylococcus
An inanimate object that can transmit infectious organisms from one individual to another is known as a actra genic contaminant vector fomite fomite
epiglottitis can occur at any age however what's the most common age range 1-5,1-3,3-7,3-10 1-5
Which of the following is not related to gram-negative bacteria represent the majority of symbiotic bacteria on the skin produce endotoxins has a lipid layer represent the majority of symbiotic bacteria on the skin
The prevention of colonization by pathogenic bacteria is attributed to antifungal soaps and creams the presence of normal flora broad-spectrum antibiotics adequate hand washing the presence of normal flora
Bacterial meningitis is fatal in up to how many percent of patients 20, 10, 30, 50 30
Which of the following is not caused by Hepatitis B virus fulminant hepatitis acute hepatitis idiopathic hepatitis idiopathic hepatitis
detail their immune systems near Knights are especially high risk for pneumonia which of the following symptoms are most likely associated with pneumonia presentation Increased work of breathing hypothermia and respiratory rate of 64 breaths a minute
which of the following are common pathologic causes for tachycardia tissue hypoxia and hypovolemia hypovolemia and hypothermia anemia and normothermia tissue hypoxia and hypothermia tissue hypoxia in hypovolemia
the three main areas of the brain are the cerebrum cerebellum and brainstem
which of the following represents the three types of depressed skull fractures ping pong ball true and flat, stEllate ping pong ball and linear, elevated ping pong ball truth, linear true and flat Ping pong ball true flat
Which of the following is highly vascular in always contains CSF subarachnoid space subdural space epidural space subarachnoid space
Cerebral perfusion pressure is used to determine blood flow to the brain which of the following is not true regarding the CPP it's not true that calculation required using ICP measured in centimeters H2O
which of the following is false in regard to the blood-brain barrier consist of endothelial cells and astrocytes, regulates fluid balance, has no slip Junction, whip of phobic molecules readily past thrOugh Lipophilic molecules readily past three
The Circle of Willis is a complex system of arterial flow at the cerebral intersection the base of the skull the brain stem The cerebellar Junction the base of the skull
Which of the following meninges is a thick and fibrous and technically consists of two layers arachnoid Mater Pia Mater dura mater dura mater
What is associated with complete loss of motor function pain Sensations and temperature loss below the site of the lesion anterior cord syndrome
What is the normal range for amniotic fluid index greater than 15 5 – 10 10 – 12 less than five 10 – 12
which of the following decelerations will have an Abrupt decrease in the fetal heart rate light variable acceleration early variable
which of the following is not a characteristic of a prolonged deceleration blasting greater in 20 minutes lasting greater than 2 minutes less than 10 minutes greater and 15 minutes lasting greater in 20 minutes
Which of the following regarding accelerations in the fetuses faults is a sustained increase in fetal heart rate above 15 it's a Transit increase in fetal heart rate 32 week and below the fhr increased 10 beats per minute for 10 seconds or more it's a sustained increase in fetal heart rate above 15 beats per minute
which of the following would be true if the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right temperature is decreased pH is increased partial pressure of oxygen is decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is increased
increased CO2 extraction of anemic Blood by the tissues produce increased concentrations of deoxyhemoglobin in the red blood cells which stimulates the production of 2-3 DPG which direction would the sigmoid curve shift Right and download
Which factors contribute to the Bohr effect high pH low CO2 low PH low CO2 low PH high CO2 low PH high CO2 low temperature low PH high CO2
with an increase in 2-3 DPG hemoglobin more readily releases oxygen molecules the patient will begin to develop ards hemoglobin less readily releases oxygen molecules Hemoglobin more readily releases oxygen molecules
with an increase in body temp comes a left shift decrease hydrogen ion concentration decreased affinity for oxygen by hemoglobin decreased affinity for Oxygen by hemoglobin
the cause of the state portion of the Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve a small drop in systemic capillary po2 in a metabolically active tissue automatically makes large amounts of o2 available because O2 id release from hemoglobin is result of a big drop in percent hemoglobin saturation
pediatric blood replacement is calculated as 10 milliliters per kilogram 15 ml per kilogram 5 ml per kilogram 1 ml per kilogram 10 ml per kilogram
Fluid resuscitation For infants should be at 5 ml per kilogram 1 ml per kilogram 10 ml per kilogram or 20 ml per kilogram 10 ml per kilogram
which of the following values would not be consistent with a patient suffering for Ards: oxygen index 8.3 oxygen saturation index 7.5 p/f ratio 98 saturation index 208 oxygen saturation index 7.5
which of the following is not a sign of respiratory distress in the Pediatric patient tachypnea grunting retractions nasal flaring Tachypnea
You have just intubated a 3 kilogram than 8 with a 3.5 82 what depth should the Tube lie: 10.5 cm 12 CM 6.5 CM or 9 cm 9 cm
what enzyme breaks up a seed a colon after it delivers a biological response in the somatic nervous system Acetylcholase acetylcholinesterase tyrosine ACH 3 acetylcholinesterase
why is that your pain required in pediatric patients who require at RSI prevent hypoxia keep patient from drooling prevent hypOtension due to reduced cardiac output prevent hypOtension due to reduced cardiac output
RSI on a trauma patient shot in the eye which Med is appropriate 9 mG vec
Trauma patient RSI 90 kilograms they're tachycardic in tearing what do you give 200 micrograms of Fentanyl
RSI hundred kilogram patient 2 hours of paint coverage which medication is appropriate 2 milligrams of Dilaudid
You're evaluating a burn patient what sign is sent them is most reliable this decide to perform the risi procedure dry mucous membranes with white patches
you're preparing to RSI patient with a head injury your patient weighs 80 kilograms what's the appropriate dose of etomidate 40, 30 cannot use etomidate with head injuries 20 20
While transporting a ventilator patient you will be maintaining a propofol drip which of the following statements is true regarding this drug it provides both anesthetic and amnesic effects
atropine is used in pediatric patients under the age of 2 what's the reason maintains cardiac outputDespite the inability to increase on a inotrophy
How does Peep work increases the functional residual capacity
when caring for a critical care patient considerations about supplemental O2 Administration or imported which of the following statements is true regarding supplemental oxygen a patient with an spo2 above 95% may still be hypoxic at the cellular level
you intubated patient that weighs 80 kilograms which of the following Vents settings would be most appropriate Tidal volume 500 rate 16 fio2 1 peep 5
potential hazards of positive pressure mechanical ventilation are pneumothorax subcutaneous emphysema and decreased cardiac output
what percentage of o2 is dissolved in plasma 0.2
when assessing your patients Airway prior to intubation you see the mallampati classification your physical assessment reveals that the posterior pharynx is partially exposed what malapati great is this Class ii
which of the following is a true statement with regard to carbon dioxide monitoring both capnography and capnometry provide data on the patency of the airway and the adequacy of Ventilation
you're caring for a patient on a vent tidal volume 600 rate 12 fio2 40% he recalled that the minute ventilation is measured by the respiratory rate times the tidal volume
cycles of increased rate and depth with periods of apnea followed by slow shallow breaths that increase the rate and depth until apnea returns is cheyne-stokes respirations
which of the following would be considered a proper fluid that is for a patient in severe sepsis 30 milliliters per kilogram
Which of the following about phenylephrine is correct it's a rapid vasoconstrictor
which of the following in regards to the use of vasopressin in sepsis is truth lower concentrations lead to an anti diuretic effect
which of the following does not me a SIrs criteria 8% bands
what is the goal mAp during flood resuscitation of a septic patient >65
which of the following fractures would most likely cause compartment syndrome proximal tibia distal tibia distal radial distal femur distal tibia
the child neck x-ray is a C3 subluxation
beta blockers can be used in all the following conditions except CHF COPD CVA am I COPD
potassium chloride is often used to replace hyperkalemic states which of the following is true regarding potassium infusions bradycardia may result from hyperkalemia
bioavailability is best represented by which of the following statements it's the amount of an altar drug that reaches systemic circulation
which sympathetic receptor inhibits norepinephrine release and Insulin release Alpha 2 alpha 1 beta 1 beta 2 Alpha 2
the drug principle of onset of action is defined as the time it takes for a medication at the Target tissue to reach a minimum effective level
a medication that attaches to a receptor site and stimulates it to cause the response that normally does is called Agonist
what drug can cause an increase risk of cardiac arrhythmias in patients On dig Epinephrine
which of the following neurotransmitters interacts with the alpha and beta receptors dopamine norepinephrine acetylcholine 2 of these are correct Norepinephrine
class 3 anti-arrhythmic medications typically potassium channel blockers what's their mechanism of action they increase the effective refractory period
sodium bicarb Hss deletirious effects alkalosis is a possible side effect
ministering labetalol IV to a patient with a hypertensive emergency you're aware that it has Alpha and beta properties
Morbidity refers to the total number of patients affected by a particular condition
what sign is associated with a marble abdomen halstead's
which of the following patients is most at risk for acUte renal failure a patient with 60% body surface burn
which of the following is true of heart murmurs a diastolic murmur may be a normal finding in an elderly patient
which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the percussion assessment technique Tympany is percussed or air filled organs stomach
which heart murmur is a cause for concern diastolic murmur from the pulmonic valve
If you checking a pulse rate and you know that decreases during expiratory phase what's the cause left ventricular failure
lAte findings consistent with increasing intracranial pressure are elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
during the cardiovascular assessment the heart rate should be assessed over what areas tricuspid and mitral valves
when caring for a multiple trauma patient youR assessing the genituaty system which of the following is the best indicator of renal function serum creatinine
performing a neurological assessment you complete the GCS score the patient opens our eyes when you call her name she's oriented 2 person place and time she obeys verbal commands WHats her GCS 14
what's the antidote to aspirin Sodium bicarbonate
what's the antidote for beta blockers glucagon
what's the antidote for calcium channel blockers calcium gluconate
What's the antidote for cocaine benzodiazepines
what's the antidote for cyanide poisoning amyl nitrate sodium nitrate
what's the antidote to ethylene glycol IV Ethanol fomepizole
What's the antidote for tricyclic antidepressants bicarbonate
What's the antidote for Tylenol overdose mucomyst
A left shift does what to oxygen holds on to it
a right shift does what to oxygen releases it